I have a wage garnishment situation with a settled case. We have since agreed to $100 per paycheck for the payment plan, but my first few paychecks were garnished at 25% of net pay. I just received a check back from the payee that is a refund of overpayment from those first few checks based on the new agreement.
My question: since the money was originally taken post-taxes from my paycheck, would there be a tax liability here with the refund or is that already considered “taxed money?”