My ex husband and I set up a legal agreement outside of our divorce settlement that provides me with a specific amount of money per year for five years for my portion of the home we lived in during our marriage. He was going to sell it when we agreed to divorce, but the housing market tanked so he ended up keeping it and said he’d give me money for my portion of the house, paid in increments. But this was done separate from the divorce decree because he wanted to appear more financially stable to lenders should he decide to get a loan for a new house later on. My question is, do I owe taxes on the money he is paying me yearly? To be clear, he is not buying me out of my portion of the house. My name was never on the deed. I don’t know if that matters.