I have been going through all the literature and I need clarification on whether or not I'm reporting the taxes I paid on my Roth IRA conversion to the IRS.
Here's my situation:
I converted some pre-taxed dollars from my employer-sponsored 401K plan to my Roth IRA. The IRS classifies a conversion from a 401K to a Roth IRA as a "rollover" and was correctly labeled so on my 1040, Line 5b. I believe this is very important to highlight because this might be the reason why Form 8606 may not be triggering in the software. In my 1099-R, my conversion (from 401k to Roth IRA) was classified as a Code G - Direct rollover to a qualified plan. This was not a Backdoor Conversion.
Lastly, I read through the IRS Pub 590-A, and it states that Form 8606 should be filed along with my tax return to report my Roth conversion, even if the entire amount was taxable (meaning I had no non-deductible contributions to differentiate from). The pub also states that I need to fill out Part 2, since the entire amount converted were all from pre-taxed dollars.
So here's my question:
Am I reading this wrong? Why am I not seeing Form 8606 generated in my tax return from FreeTax USA? I went over the Retirement Income - 1099-R section over and over to make sure I'm checking all the right boxes (ex: Did you roll over this distribution to a Roth IRA?), and everything is correct. What's going on here? Do you think Form 8606 is not generating because the IRS is classifying this conversion as a rollover (Code G)? But then why ask me the question if this was a rollover distribution to a Roth IRA? I'm confused and I need your help to make sure that I'm reporting the taxes I'm paying right now on these conversions correctly to the IRS. I don't want to find out later at retirement age that the IRS doesn't have proof that I paid taxes on these amounts just because Form 8606 was not generated in this tax software.
Thanks!